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Przemolog (Offline)
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Default 23-12-2007, 01:12

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Originally Posted by dg7feq View Post
Well, its a mixture of inbound call fees and outbound revenues.
German mobile carriers take about 10cent/min for calls that are placed to their subscribers. So they could offer free inbound calls for countries that charge 10ct/min or less for incoming roaming calls.
Not necessarily. The essential value is what is average rate which any specific operator receives per minute. I mean, what if a large part of the overall traffic are cheap on-net calls (=much cheaper than 10 ct/min). As long as the whole thing remains within the home network, that's OK. But what should happen when the SIM is roaming in a foreign network with the termination rate 8 ct/min.? If the call to that SIM comes not from the home network, the operator receives 10 cents which is probably enough to cover forwarding abroad including the termination fee of the roaming partner. But if not, i.e. the call comes from the home network at the on-net rate, let's say 5 ct/min who will pay the difference? Differing the inbound rates depending on the origin of the call is technically possible, but would it be acceptable by customers? Of course, my example doesn't exclude free incomig calls since losses on the inbound calls may be compesated by profits from outbound calls. But such pricing may force some "fair use policies" like limiting the volume of incoming calls or the inboung/outbound ratio...

Last edited by Przemolog; 23-12-2007 at 01:29..
   
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